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Various

"New York Times Current History: The European War from the Beginning to March 1915, Vol 1, No. 2 Who Began the War, and Why?"


Could Belgium, without being false to her duties of neutrality, take up
the position which the German Government calls "friendly neutrality"?
That is to say, could she allow the German armies to pass without
opposition through her territory? Can the German Government itself
answer that question?
It is enough to reread the conversation given above between the British
Ambassador and the German Secretary of State to come to a clear
conclusion in that respect. If the violation of Belgian territory was to
procure so signal an advantage to Germany that she had no fear of
bringing on war with England to attain it, then for Belgium to lend
herself to the passage of German troops must have meant the certainty of
fatal consequences for France. Thus for Belgium to have yielded to the
German ultimatum would _ipso facto_ have conferred a considerable
advantage to Germany, to the detriment of the other belligerent, and
would have constituted a breach of neutrality.
Germany concludes her note by threats. She engages, on the condition
already defined, to evacuate Belgian territory at the conclusion of
peace. If Belgium behaves in a hostile manner [_that is to say, if she
does her duty_] Germany will be obliged to consider Belgium as an enemy.


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